01. A client captures email opt-ins in Marketing Cloud Engagement data extensions and call preferences on Sales Cloud objects. It wants its Data 360 segments to respect both before any campaign runs.
Which approach to consent follows Salesforce's recommendation?
a) Ingest it with each source's connector and map it to the Privacy Data Model
b) Write the preferences into CRM fields with a copy field enrichment
c) Leave consent in each source system and check it only at the moment the campaign sends
d) Re-collect every preference through a new web form before ingesting consent
02. After a new web source was added, a client's identity resolution consolidation rate dropped, because many names in that source are misspelled. The data owner proposes switching the live ruleset's name criteria to Fuzzy – Low precision today.
What should the consultant recommend?
a) Switch the live ruleset's name criteria to Fuzzy – Low precision as proposed
b) Change the reconciliation rule on name fields to Most Frequent
c) Enable Match on Blank for the name fields in the live ruleset
d) Test it in a second ruleset and compare consolidation rates
03. A retailer has three offers (platinum, gold and standard), and each customer must receive only the highest offer they qualify for. The audiences overlap, because many platinum customers also meet the gold criteria.
Which segment type should the consultant recommend?
a) Three standard segments published to the same activation target
b) A waterfall segment
c) A real-time segment with exclusion criteria for higher tiers
d) One standard segment with a container for each offer tier
04. An ERP system drops a daily CSV file into Amazon S3 containing new and changed customer records. Customers removed in the ERP must also be removed from Data 360, and the client does not want the whole dataset deleted and reloaded every cycle.
Which setup should the consultant configure on the data stream?
a) A scheduled batch data transform that filters removed customers out of the DLO
b) Incremental refresh mode, with a record delete flag on the last-modified field
c) Upsert refresh mode, with a delete file
d) Full Refresh mode, replacing all existing records with each daily file
05. A client's unified individuals carry a customer ID field that downstream teams use to look customers up in the ERP. After each identity resolution run, the ID shown on some unified profiles switches between the values held by different sources, and the lookups break. The business treats the ERP as the authoritative source for that ID.
What should the consultant configure on the unified ID field?
a) Source Priority reconciliation, with the ERP ranked first
b) Most Frequent reconciliation, with Ignore Empty Values
c) Last Updated reconciliation, based on the Individual DMO's Last Modified Date
d) Key qualifiers on the DLO fields holding the customer ID
06. A service company brings support-portal engagement into Data 360, where each customer's open-issue count lands in a DMO mapped from the portal's data stream. When a customer's count crosses a threshold, the client wants Salesforce to create a follow-up task on the related Contact and route it through branching logic its admins maintain.
Which approach should the consultant recommend?
a) A copy field enrichment that writes the count onto the Contact
b) A segment activated to the Data 360 target as an Audience DMO
c) A Data Cloud-triggered flow that starts when the DMO condition is met
d) A batch data transform that recalculates the count on a nightly schedule
07. A consultant is preparing the solution overview for a retailer adopting Data 360. The client's IT team has proposed ingesting every available system first and choosing use cases later.
Which approach should the consultant recommend in the overview?
a) Ingest every CRM, commerce and web source now so no data is missing later
b) Start from the target business outcomes, then work back to the sources, fields and identifiers they need
c) Configure identity resolution first, then decide which sources to connect
d) Map every source to custom DMOs so the model mirrors each system's schema
08. After the first identity resolution run, a service manager reports that one well-known customer seems to show two loyalty numbers and an outdated address. She wants to review that customer's complete unified profile herself, without writing SQL, to check for discrepancies.
Which tool should the consultant point her to?
a) Query Editor, joining the unified and source DMOs in SQL
b) Data Explorer, browsing rows of the Unified Individual DMO
c) The ruleset's processing summary and consolidation rate
d) Profile Explorer
09. A retailer's analytics team works entirely in its Snowflake account, where it joins customer data with finance tables in its own SQL. It wants Data 360 unified profiles and calculated insight results available there and kept close to current, and the architecture board has ruled out loading copies of that data into Snowflake.
What should the consultant recommend?
a) Set up a data share target for Snowflake and share the unified DMOs and CIOs
b) Activate a segment to a cloud file storage target and load the files into Snowflake
c) Connect the Snowflake tables to Data 360 through zero copy data federation
d) Build standard reports on the CIOs and give the analysts dashboard access
10. An online retailer wants a Marketing Cloud Engagement journey to start in near real time when a shopper's cart-abandonment row is added to a Data 360 DMO, rather than waiting for the next segment publish.
What should the consultant configure?
a) A rapid publish segment activated to Marketing Cloud Engagement
b) A data action on the DMO with a Marketing Cloud Engagement data action target
c) A copy field enrichment into the Contact record
d) A calculated insight counting abandoned carts per profile